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Originally Posted by DTK  Quote:
Originally Posted by Leslie In particular, are translations and paraphrases inspired and therefore infallible or do these terms refer only to the original manuscripts in the original languages? | My response is not so much intended to answer your question directly, but rather to help you think through this issue.
Consider: It is well known by students of the Bible that textual variations between the Hebrew text, the Septuagint (LXX), and copies of both existed in the days of our Lord’s flesh, yet the Lord Jesus and the New Testament writers themselves quote repeatedly from contemporary copies of both the extant Hebrew texts and translations of the Septuagint, never once calling into question the certainty, integrity, and adequacy of these copies to communicate infallibly the word of the true and living God.
DTK |
Good point. I never thought of it that way. It makes sense. If it is only the original manuscripts that are infallible (and by extension, faithful copies of the same), then it does not make sense to distinguish between singing psalms (or other scripture) and singing uninspired hymns. Jesus Himself, though he countered the Pharisees on many other points, never disputed their practice of paraphrasing the scriptures. I hate paraphrases myself but there probably is no reason for me to get on my holier-than-though high horse over them.