Quote:
Originally Posted by Leslie  Are inspired and infallible coextensive--that is inspired in the theological sense? I'm familiar with the basic meaning of both. In particular, are translations and paraphrases inspired and therefore infallible or do these terms refer only to the original manuscripts in the original languages? |
Inspiration, infallibility, and inerrancy apply
only to the original autograph manuscripts of the Scriptures, none of which has survived (in God's providence). No translation from the Hebrew, Aramaic, and Greek (into whatever language, including English) is to be considered in these terms.
Inspiration, especially, is used in regard to how the Word of God was transmitted from God's mind to the minds of the human writers in the original autographs and, thus, has no relation whatsoever to translations.
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Richard T. Zuelch, M.Div
Ruling Elder, OPC (not currently serving)
Westminster Presbyterian Church, CA (OPC)
www.reiterations.wordpress.com www.foft.wordpress.com
"When I cease to preach salvation by faith in Jesus, put me into a lunatic asylum, for you may be sure that my mind is gone." - Charles Spurgeon (1834-1892)