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Originally Posted by larryjf  Would it be a fair argument to say that there was a system of copying over manuscripts in which the old were destroyed after the copy was made? I've heard this type of thing with Van Bruggen.
And speaking of the first 4 centuries would it be fair to say that because the Byzantine history for those centuries is lacking it wouldn't be fair to judge from those centuries? In other words, do we have the right to make judgments on manuscripts without having a full spectrum of the history? |
To be honest Matthew Winzer or Jerusalem Blade could give you a MUCH better defense of the Byzantine than I can, I am just an "armchair" student.
Either of these Gentlemen would, I am sure give you some pretty solid fare.
