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Old 05-17-2008, 08:43 AM
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Quote:
Originally Posted by MOSES View Post
Quote:
Originally Posted by KMK View Post
I don't know what 'implications' you are talking about...[moses]
KMK
You stated (inferred) that there are "implications" of not making a break in the interpretation of Matthew 24-25 at verse 34 of chapt. 24.

You said this:
Quote:
Originally Posted by KMK View Post
Do preterists make a break at 34 because of exegetical reasons or because they understand the IMPLICATIONS of not making such a break?

I'm trying to find out from you what you think these "implications" would be.
Your the one who implied (and said) that there are implications in not taking a break in timing in matt. 24-25
In order for you to of said what you said above, you would of had some presuppositions as to what those implications are..

I'm just asking you to tell me what (in your mind when you said this) those implications are.

Thanks
Sorry, this thread is rather old and I had forgotten how it started. The implication I was referring to is this: If you don't make a break at 32, then what follows must belong to a first century fulfilment. That can be problematic as the majority of church history teaches that Matt 25 concerns the second coming (which is future).

At the time I asked the question I was of the understanding that only hyper-preterists argue for a 1st century fulfillment of Matt 25. I now stand corrected.
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