05-14-2008, 11:14 PM
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I think someone I know did that in last year's The Confessional Presbyterian . . . and what do you know, it's available online here: The Confessional Presbyterian » In Defense of the Descendit by Daniel R. Hyde Quote:
Originally Posted by sastark  Does anyone care to reconcile these two statements? Quote: Wesminster Larger Catechism
Question 50: Wherein consisted Christ's humiliation after his death?
Answer: Christ's humiliation after his death consisted in his being buried, and continuing in the state of the dead, and under the power of death till the third day; which has been otherwise expressed in these words, he descended into hell. | and Quote: Heidelberg Catechism
Question 44. Why is there added, "he descended into hell"?
Answer: That in my greatest temptations, I may be assured, and wholly comfort myself in this, that my Lord Jesus Christ, by his inexpressible anguish, pains, terrors, and hellish agonies, in which he was plunged during all his sufferings, but especially on the cross, has delivered me from the anguish and torments of hell.
| It seems to me that the WLC places the "descent into hell" after death, during the time that our Lord was dead, in the grave; whereas, the Heidelberg Catechism places "descended into hell" during that time that Christ was suffering the wrath of God on the cross. Is there some form of agreement between these two documents that I'm not seeing? | |