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Originally Posted by KMK  Can a preterist apply the Kingdom Parables of Matt 13 to the destruction of Jerusalem in 70 AD and still be considered orthodox? |
The kingdom parables, specifically that of "the wheat and tares", is fulfilled in 70 ad because that is the exegetical conclusion of the passage.
Perhaps a "preterist" can apply it to 70 ad, but the real question is "what saith the scriptures".
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24 He put another parable before them, saying, “The kingdom of heaven may be compared to a man who sowed good seed in his field, 25 but while his men were sleeping, his enemy came and sowed weeds [3] among the wheat and went away. 26 So when the plants came up and bore grain, then the weeds appeared also. 27 And the servants [4] of the master of the house came and said to him, ‘Master, did you not sow good seed in your field? How then does it have weeds?’ 28 He said to them, ‘An enemy has done this.’ So the servants said to him, ‘Then do you want us to go and gather them?’ 29 But he said, ‘No, lest in gathering the weeds you root up the wheat along with them. 30 Let both grow together until the harvest, and at harvest time I will tell the reapers, Gather the weeds first and bind them in bundles to be burned, but gather the wheat into my barn.’”
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Is this scripture not easily fulfilled with the judgement in 70ad?
It is not preterist dogma...but simple exegesis.
And how on earth would someone who comes to a sober analysis of this passage as refering to the judgement of Jerusalem be considered unorthodox.
What if Jesus was speaking of the "last" judgement to be poured out upon that generation in this parable, would Jesus be unorthodox?
Luckily for us, Jesus explains this parable a few verses later.
The 70 ad fulfillement is the most consistent interpretation in regards to the rest of the kingdom parables, especially as they
build up to the Olivet discourse.