Quote:
Originally Posted by Jaymin Allen  Quick question
If Jesus allowed divorce for unfaithfulness, why doesn't He give a similar statement to Paul's in 1 Cor. 7:15 asserting the release of the brother or sister from the marriage covenant? |
This is one of the reasons why Piper takes the interpretation that he does. If Jesus taught that there is a cause for just divorce, we would expect other parts of the NT to either reiterate this or at least not contradict this. But reading the other parts of the NT that mention divorce and remarriage, I notice that they all seem to be absolute condemnations of divorce. That is, unless they are read through the lens of the Matthean exception.
Another answer though, for the people who believe that divorce in some scenarios is biblical, would be that many of the epistles assume that their recipients know certain things. In Acts, every time someone responds, it doesn't have to include language that implies irresistible grace, because we have the Epistles that point that out very clearly. So in 1 Cor. it may not have been necessary for Paul to lay out the obvious reasons for divorce. If it was, like the other view on divorce here teaches, taught in the Law and then reaffirmed by Jesus, we could say that the audience had knowledge of it, and didn't need to be reminded by Paul.
Not sure which answer is right, yet.
