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Originally Posted by vkochetta  I think the comment I heard from the lecture was mostly as an "aside" and not really the main point of his lesson. He didn't give any rationale or support.
Not knowing Hebrew and being unfamiliar with their cultural phrases, I thought I'd throw the question out there.
Some of the replies tie in Lev 18:9 and Lev 20:11-20 for similar uses of language.
Although I am comfortable with the plain reading of the text, the perspective that it was a physical violation does seem to explain the harshness of the curse.
I'm always learning and always open to godly, thoughtful input. Thanks for your replies
---Vinny |
It is certainly a possible reading of the text. However, the harshness of the curse can also be explained by the fact that honor and shame were much more important to that generation (especially given the connections noted in my sermon between Adam and Noah), and nakedness was much more serious then than it is to us. The consciousness of Adam's nakedness would have been heavy on Noah's mind, especially since there was only one link necessary genealogically between Noah and Adam. I.e., Noah would have been talking with one person who knew Adam. The Adam connection also makes the simple nakedness interpretation much more convincing.