I think the comment I heard from the lecture was mostly as an "aside" and not really the main point of his lesson. He didn't give any rationale or support.

Not knowing Hebrew and being unfamiliar with their cultural phrases, I thought I'd throw the question out there.

Some of the replies tie in Lev 18:9 and Lev 20:11-20 for similar uses of language.

Although I am comfortable with the plain reading of the text, the perspective that it was a physical violation does seem to explain the harshness of the curse.

I'm always learning and always open to godly, thoughtful input. Thanks for your replies

---Vinny

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VKochetta
Ruling Elder, PCA
Georgia