
04-28-2008, 09:42 PM
|
 | Puritanboard Doctor | | Join Date: Mar 2008 Location: Pittsburgh, PA
Posts: 6,193
Thanks: 2,297
Thanked 929 Times in 646 Posts
| |
Quote:
Originally Posted by Semper Fidelis Quote:
Originally Posted by fredtgreco Quote:
Originally Posted by Blue Tick I have a question regarding overseers.
1 Timothy 3:4 reads.
My questions is: If a married man does not have children would this disqualify him from the office?
I would say no. This does not disqualify him from the office as long as his duties as a husband are in order and the other qualifications are met. My understanding of the text is this: If he does have children they should be submissive and orderly. However, it doesn't seem that its a prerequisite for a overseer to have children.
What think ye? | Think about that for a minute. If a marriage and children were necessary, then Paul could not be an elder.
Neither could Christ. | Think?
Fred, Fred,
You should be asking how I feel about it. | |