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Originally Posted by Gryphonette Quote:
Originally Posted by toddpedlar But, see, I'm not sure I buy the argument that Scripturally it's permissible.
Not every sin committed by the people in every Biblical story is condemned explicitly. Doesn't it seem that polygamy satisfies, at least, as a good and necessary consequence of Scripture as a whole, what we'd normally call sinful? Certainly there is no explicit command, "Thou shalt not take more than one wife," but the weight of Scripture, it seems to me, comes down against polygamy as a sinful act.
Now Bruce makes some good points about members in the church going outside the church and securing a second marriage via the civil magistrate. One needs to recognize that marriage as legal according to the state - but that need not require us to accept the act as something which is not sinful. I also agree that a man's multiple wives must be cared for - and that he is not to put away those wives when he converts. That would indeed be adding sin to sin - but the point is that his polygamy WAS and IS a sin... we can't for expediency's sake call it what it is not. | Remember? The bit where Nathan thunders at David "YOU are the man!"?
"Thus says the LORD, the God of Israel, 'I anointed you king over Israel, and I delivered you out of the hand of Saul. And I gave you your master’s house and your master’s wives into your arms and gave you the house of Israel and of Judah. And if this were too little, I would add to you as much more."
The LORD wouldn't have given David "wives" were it actually sinful for David to have them, I don't believe. |
Good text to consider, but I don't think it proves the case for acceptability of plural marriage.
The same God who said through Nathan "I gave you your master's house and your master's wives into your arms" said that the King (of which David was an example) should not multiply wives, that his heart be turned away. Given this, is it not possible that what God has said is not any countenancing of the plural marriages that David walked into through gaining the crown, but that all this meant was "did I not give you everything that was Saul's, and yet you demand more?"
I could of course be wrong, but it seems to me the importance of this statement of the Lord's is that all that was Saul's David has succeeded to - including both house and wives (perhaps in some way a comprehensive statement of completeness of the succession). David has everything - now WHY has he gone after ANOTHER man's wife?
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Todd K. Pedlar
member, First Congregational Church, (CCCC) Cresco, IA
http://semperubi.rtrc.net
"Many men, after a long conversion, see more of the workings of sin in their hearts than ever they did before or at their first conversion. Now, such men have not an increase of sin, but an increase of illumination and light"
(Christopher Love)