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Originally Posted by kalawine OK, I may be depending on some of our Greek experts for this one but anyone who knows what they're talking about will do. When Peter wrote about the destruction of the elements by fire and then a new heavens and a new earth: Will this literally be a new heaven and a new earth? Is this figurative? I realize that as long as we are with our Lord in eternity it doesn't really matter. On the other hand, if there was no reason for it this passage wouldn't exist. Any comments? | FWIW I believe the new heavens and new earth in Isaiah 65 refers to the NT age, but I am not convinced that the 2 Peter passage does.
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Daniel Ritchie
Saintfield, Northern Ireland - Queen's University, Belfast:History/Politics
Member of Dromara Reformed Presbyterian Church of Ireland (Covenanter)
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