04-22-2008, 08:51 PM
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 | Puritanboard Postgraduate | | Join Date: Jan 2007 Location: Wrightwood, CA
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Quote:
Originally Posted by TimV  Quote: |
The original bone of contention between Tim and myself concerned Jesus supposedly quoting the LXX of Isaiah 6:9 & 10 when He spoke as recorded in Matthew 13:14 & 15, simply because the LXX and Matthew agree somewhat in wording, while the Hebrew does not agree so closely. The question I posed – which was treated with undeserved ridicule, and then evaded by irrelevant argumentation – was why would Jesus, the Messiah of the Hebrew people, when speaking to His disciples (and at other times the priests, Pharisees, and scribes) use Greek, when the primary spoken language of the nation was Aramaic, and the Scriptures of the nation were in Hebrew?
| I never said that Christ spoke in Greek. I said He quoted the Septuagint as well as the Hebrew. | ?? If He quoted the Septuagint then by definition He spoke in Greek.
Are you saying that Jesus quoted the Septuagint by translating it into the Hebrew? Why would He do that when He essentially wrote the Hebrew? Why not quote from His own writings?
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