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The original bone of contention between Tim and myself concerned Jesus supposedly quoting the LXX of Isaiah 6:9 & 10 when He spoke as recorded in Matthew 13:14 & 15, simply because the LXX and Matthew agree somewhat in wording, while the Hebrew does not agree so closely. The question I posed – which was treated with undeserved ridicule, and then evaded by irrelevant argumentation – was why would Jesus, the Messiah of the Hebrew people, when speaking to His disciples (and at other times the priests, Pharisees, and scribes) use Greek, when the primary spoken language of the nation was Aramaic, and the Scriptures of the nation were in Hebrew?
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I never
said that Christ spoke in Greek. I
said He quoted the Septuagint as well as the Hebrew. I clearly implied He quoted the
Greek text rather than the
Hebrew text exclusively. Just like when He quoted the Hebrew text He often used
another language than Hebrew, namely Aramaic, which
isn't a dialect of Hebrew.