View Single Post
  #97 (permalink)  
Old 04-22-2008, 08:07 PM
TimV's Avatar
TimV TimV is offline.
Puritanboard Sophomore
 
Join Date: Feb 2005
Location: Oceano, CA, USA
Posts: 935
Thanks: 82
Thanked 162 Times in 108 Posts
Quote:
The original bone of contention between Tim and myself concerned Jesus supposedly quoting the LXX of Isaiah 6:9 & 10 when He spoke as recorded in Matthew 13:14 & 15, simply because the LXX and Matthew agree somewhat in wording, while the Hebrew does not agree so closely. The question I posed – which was treated with undeserved ridicule, and then evaded by irrelevant argumentation – was why would Jesus, the Messiah of the Hebrew people, when speaking to His disciples (and at other times the priests, Pharisees, and scribes) use Greek, when the primary spoken language of the nation was Aramaic, and the Scriptures of the nation were in Hebrew?
I never said that Christ spoke in Greek. I said He quoted the Septuagint as well as the Hebrew. I clearly implied He quoted the Greek text rather than the Hebrew text exclusively. Just like when He quoted the Hebrew text He often used another language than Hebrew, namely Aramaic, which isn't a dialect of Hebrew.
__________________
Tim Vaughan, 48 years old, member PCA church but currently attending EV Free church. San Luis Obispo County, California.