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Philo is obviously quoting the Letter of Aristeas, or maybe vice versa. I pulled out my copy of The Works of Philo to refresh my memory and while his account of festivals is independent,
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So, if I have this straight, there is no question that Philo lived in Alexandria, that he was born 20 years before Christ and died about 20 years after Christ rose from the dead, and that he writes an independent account of an annual festival in the city in which he lives that celebrates the Septuagint and he may be the source for the Letter of Aristeas. But he is not a source for there being a Septuagint.
Is that right?