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This is just as much an assertion as anything I would say about the unreliability of induction. How do you prove that the future will resemble the past? By looking at examples from the past? So the future will resemble the past because the future has resembled the past. This is circular, which is ultimately okay, I suppose, if someone is using it as an indemonstrable axiom. But it shouldn't be considered demonstrable by the supposed supply of "evidences."
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True the atheist is ultimately circular in this assumption because he can only appeal to the past and his experience of the future always being the same. However the Christian appeals to God's providence, as demonstrated in the Bible, to prove that the future will be like the past.
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And, again, we assert that God's existence is not baseless because He is the necessary such and such, but the Atheist can then assert the existence of His own principle, which is the necessary precondition for the same such and such. It's the problem of the Transcendental Argument again.
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The atheist can assert his own principle but then we need to evaluate that. What proof does he have of that principle? Does his principle explain reality? etc...
We have the Bible as our standard, which provides us with a complete world view that completely accounts for reality.