Thread: 1 Peter 2:9
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Old 04-16-2008, 09:07 PM
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Quote:
Originally Posted by greenbaggins View Post
James is absolutely right on the OT background for the verse. It is quite a stretch to say that Peter was writing to Jewish Christians. We can simply ask this question: does the verse have any application to us Gentile Christians today? If it does, then the dispensationalist has given the ball game away, since the church can now be described this way. Elect exiles of the dispersion does not imply Jewish Christians. It implies Christians scattered because of persecution. Diaspora was a common term in use at that time to describe the Jewish scattering. However, Peter uses it in a different way. He is using it to describe Christians who are scattered from their homeland (pilgrim theology).
Oh, Lane! Here you go again! Are you trying to diss my dispensational upbringing? Next thing you know, you'll be making fun of my library of Left Behind books.

BTW, as much as your learned arguments typically are pretty much what I also believe (other than ones that have to do with water), how does application to us give the "ball game away"? I would think that a dispi would say that the OT writings are addressed to Israel, but have manifold application to us by way of example, exhortation, encouragement, etc. Why is it any different in the Petrine epistles?

IMO, you have a stronger argument in showing that the Jewish term "disaspora" is being used to describe NT believers who, although they were not a race, nation, or priesthood, are now described with such vintage OT language. It is easier for the covenant person to explain THAT than it is for the dispi to deny it.
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