Quote:
Originally Posted by Coram Deo  His arguments might be confusing because I pasted excerpts... |
I have printed it off to read later. We know that oil was used medicinally in the Near East. We know that James was writing primarily to Jewish Christians. We know that this practice is not in any other epistle. So I think there is a
prima facie case to say that this was a temporary and cultural practice of the Jews and was to do with physical healing as opposed to spiritual healing.
