Greetings:

I guess the onus is on me to show that the true Biblical mode of Baptism is by Sprinkling and Sprinkling or Pouring only.

1. The Baptism of Jesus was by sprinkling and sprinkling or pouring only.

This was mentioned in the OP, but since Immersionists (IM's) so desperately rely on this incident it is good to go over again. First, the IM's argument:

And straightway coming up out of the water, he saw the heavens opened, and the Spirit like a dove descending upon him, Mark 1:10.

IM's think this passage settles the issue. The phrase, "coming up out of the water" is a clear indicative (they think) that Christ was plunged into the water, and that he was being pulled out of it. It was during this "coming up out of the water" that the Spirit of God descends upon Jesus like a dove.

In all of the narratives concerning the Baptism of Jesus it is reported that John the Baptist was the one who saw, and testified, that the Spirit descended upon Jesus. There is an improbability here: If John is busy pulling Jesus out of the water, then how can he see the Spirit of God descend upon Jesus? Of all of the Immersions I have seen the one who is administering the Immersion (like John the Baptist) is looking down, not up.

The Bible is emphatic that it was done immediately, "straightway" (eutheos) as Jesus is "coming up out of the water" the Spirit of God, "Descends upon Him like a dove." For the Immersionist picture to work John the Baptist would have to stop pulling Jesus out of the water, turn his head 180 degress, and look up, then watch the Holy Spirit descend upon Jesus as he finishes pulling Jesus out of the water.

The present tense "coming" makes the Immersionist view implausible. The Paedo-Baptist view of this you will find lower down.

2) The Baptism of the Ethiopian Eunuch,Acts 8:38,39:

And he commanded the chariot to stand still: and they went down both into the water, both Philip and the eunuch; and he baptized him. And when they were come up out of the water, the Spirit of the Lord caught away Philip, that the eunuch saw him no more: and he went on his way rejoicing.

After reading all of the extra-biblical lexicons, quotations from pagan and sacred sources, and telling us about how Aristotle and Plato thought about the meaning of Baptism one can be blinded into thinking that this passage confirms Immersion. However, if such preconceived notions are stripped away, then Immersion would be impossible to find.

The most obvious point made here is that Philip and the eunuch, "went down both into the water, both Philip and the eunuch. The Bible uses the term "both" twice in order to emphatically teach something. What is it saying? That both Philip and the eunuch, "went down both into the water."

Can the Bible be any more plain?

If the Ethiopian eunuch was "fully Immersed" because he "went into the water," then it would follow that Philip was also Immersed because he went "into the water" with the eunuch. The Bible would not be so emphatic if it were not the case. The only way for the IM's to talk their way out of it is for them to cling to their extra-Biblical idea about the meaning of Baptism.

I would like to go to the Paedo-Baptist views on the passages cited above, because I find them fascinating and throughly Biblical. But I think that I should point out the way the Bible defines the word "Baptism" and oppose this definition with the Immersionists use of the Greek Philosophers.

The Bible Alone vs. the Greek lexicons and philosophers:

In the OP I already pointed out the connection between the Baptism of Jesus, Matt. 3:15, and Numbers 8:6,7:

Take the Levites from among the children of Israel, and cleanse them. And thus shalt thou do unto them, to cleanse them: Sprinkle water of purifying upon them, and let them shave all their flesh, and let them wash their clothes, and so make themselves clean.

Again, the Scriptures use the term "cleanse" twice as a means of emphasis. The Priests in the OT were "cleansed" by the sprinkling of water upon them. Undoubtedly, this was the method John the Baptist used when he Baptized Jesus, "in order to fulfill all righteousness."

To "Dip" Jesus into the water when God commanded Sprinkling would have been a violation of the Word of God, and it would have been unrighteous.

2) The Method of John the Baptist was Sprinkling with a hyssop branch, and not Immersion.

John's theology of Baptism was very simple, "...I indeed baptize you with water; but one mightier than I cometh, the latchet of whose shoes I am not worthy to unloose: he shall baptize you with the holy Ghost and with fire, Luke 3:16.

It follows that John considered his Baptism as symbolical of the Baptism of Jesus when the Holy Ghost would "descend" or be "poured out" upon all flesh. And, after the Baptism of Jesus he did witness the Holy Spirit descend upon Jesus.

But, Baptism was not an invention of John the Baptist. Ceremonial washings and cleansings are found throughout the Old Testament.

Heb. 9:19 - For when Moses had spoken every precept to all the people according to the law, he took the blood of calves and of goats, with water, and scarlet wool, and hyssop, and sprinkled both the book, and all the people.

Exo 29:21 - And thou shalt take of the blood that is upon the altar, and of the anointing oil,and sprinkle it upon Aaron, and upon his garments, and upon his sons, and upon the garments of his sons with him: and he shall be hallowed, and his garments, and his sons, and his sons' garments with him.

Eze 36:25 - Then will I sprinkle clean water upon you, and ye shall be clean: from all your filthiness, and from all, your idols, will I cleanse you.

Dan 4:33 - The same hour was the thing fulfilled upon Nebuchadnezzar: and he was driven from men, and did eat grass as oxen, and his body was wet with the dew of heaven, till his hairs were grown like eagles' feathers, and his nails like birds' claws.

In this last passage Nebuchadnezzar is said to be "wet" with the dew of heaven. Yet, the Hebrew word here used for "wet" means "to dip" or "Immerse." Yet, it is clear that Nebuchadnezzar was "sprinkled" by the dew of heaven, and that he was not plunged into a lake, river, or bathtub.

It seems to me both reasonable and clear that a godly Bible Believing Man like John the Baptist would search the Scriptures to find the correct mode for Baptism. I doubt very much he would search Greek philosophies, Hebrew lexicons, and other such things for his method.

Would an Immersionist like to prove me wrong?

That Baptism as it is defined by the Bible is only done by sprinkling or pouring can be shown by many other verses. Of which I will have to demonstrate at a different time.

Grace and Peace,

-CH

__________________
In Essentials Unity, in non-Essentials Liberty, in all things Charity.

Robert Paul Wieland
Springs Reformed Presbyterian Church
Colorado Springs, CO
RPCNA