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Old 04-14-2008, 05:30 PM
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larryjf larryjf is offline.
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Originally Posted by TaylorOtwell View Post
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Originally Posted by larryjf View Post
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Originally Posted by TaylorOtwell View Post
The position I am more familiar with is a New Covenant Theology position that states that there is no distinction between moral/ceremonial/civil law and that the entire law of Moses is abrogated in the life of the believer. Therefore, only the commandments of Christ and His Apostles are binding on the believer. In other words, this position does not equate the Ten Commandments with the immutable, absolute moral law of God.
If there is no distinction between the ceremonial, civil, and moral law, why were only the priests permitted to perform the ceremonial law...why were the kings in charge of the civil law...why was everyone under the moral law?

How far is this belief of no more law outside of the NT taken?

Do we allow our daughters to be prostitutes because the NT doesn't forbid it (Lev 19:29)?

Is it o.k. to cut ourselves for the dead (Lev 19:28)?

Is rape o.k. (Deu 22:25)?
The typical response I think you would receive would be that commands regarding adultery are given in the New Covenant Scripture. Similarly, we know that cutting ourselves for the dead has no bearing on their eternal state because no man comes to the Father except by Jesus Christ.

Thank you all for your responses, I plan to read through that Pink article.
I thought that prostitution was different from adultery.

Also, the NT does teach that the Sabbath was indeed made for man...in other words for man to observe (Mark 2:27).
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Larry Bray
Elder Elect - Reformed Presbyterian Church of Boothwyn, PCA
Boothwyn, PA - http://www.rpcb.org/

Free Online Reformed Seminary - http://www.tnars.net

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"The best Christian is still a poor Christian" - R.B. Kuiper
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