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Originally Posted by blhowes  Quote:
Originally Posted by BlackCalvinist The moral laws are all repeated in the NT. They would typically classify the Sabbath as being a part of the ceremonial law (with the Deut. 5 version as justification), saying it was given to Israel, not the church. | I'm trying to follow their reasoning. How do they use Deut. 5 to say that just the Sabbath was given to Israel, and not the rest? Why is just the Sabbath part of the ceremonial law?
At first, it made sense because it says: Deu 5:15 And remember that thou wast a servant in the land of Egypt, and that the LORD thy God brought thee out thence through a mighty hand and by a stretched out arm: therefore the LORD thy God commanded thee to keep the sabbath day.
But isn't the whole passage given to Israel as well? Deu 5:6 I am the LORD thy God, which brought thee out of the land of Egypt, from the house of bondage.
Deu 5:7 Thou shalt have none other gods before me...
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Hey Bill - you actually have it nailed. They'd combine those verses alongside of 'The Sabbath is the only command given to Israel not repeated in the New Testament' to get out of Sabbath observance.
Slightly
, but did you happen to catch Truth For Life recently (Alistair Begg) ?
He just completed a series on the Sabbath. It answered a lot of my questions and actually convicted me quite a bit regarding my time management.
Truth For Life: Daily Broadcasts
I still haven't personally been able to square Sabbath observance against Hebrews 3-4 and found Begg's treatment of Col. 2 and Romans 13 to be superficial. But his other arguments as far as the proper use of the Lord's Day.... I do believe there is much
wisdom in observing the Christian Sabbath.