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Originally Posted by BlackCalvinist  The moral laws are all repeated in the NT. They would typically classify the Sabbath as being a part of the ceremonial law (with the Deut. 5 version as justification), saying it was given to Israel, not the church. | I'm trying to follow their reasoning. How do they use Deut. 5 to say that just the Sabbath was given to Israel, and not the rest? Why is just the Sabbath part of the ceremonial law?
At first, it made sense because it says: Deu 5:15 And remember that thou wast a servant in the land of Egypt, and that the LORD thy God brought thee out thence through a mighty hand and by a stretched out arm: therefore the LORD thy God commanded thee to keep the sabbath day.
But isn't the whole passage given to Israel as well? Deu 5:6 I am the LORD thy God, which brought thee out of the land of Egypt, from the house of bondage.
Deu 5:7 Thou shalt have none other gods before me...
__________________
Bob Howes
Framingham, MA
A reoccurring thought:
Rev 22:20 He which testifieth these things saith, Surely I come quickly. Amen. Even so, come, Lord Jesus.
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