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Originally Posted by ModernPuritan? Ill look into those posts. but im not asking which Greek text should be the basis of translation. Im asking on what authority can we insist that the KJV is an inspired English translation to be held up above all others? what about the mistranslations of the KJV? ITs fine if one prefers the KJV, but to assert KJV primacy is rather silly i should think. |
I have to prepare for my lesson tomorrow evening, so I don't have time to get into anything tonight.
First, would you please indicate where the author or anyone in this thread has asserted that "the KJV is an inspired English translation?"
Second, the textual issue is the heart of the debate, and primacy rests first there, secondarily upon the Authorized Version as a five fold revision of English Bibles beginning with Tyndale and ending with the Bishops Bible.
Third the Authorized Version is the fountainhead through which the English language itself, and the divine foundation upon which English common law countries rests. It shouldn't be silly to argue for the primacy of the Declaration of Independence unto the political institutions of the United States, should it? Nor should it be perceived as silly to argue for the primacy of the Authorized Version as the binding tie between law and gospel in the sociological foundations of American society, it's just a matter of historical facts.