I think that the mode is much less significant that what it needs to take place before hand
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Originally Posted by bygracealone View Post
Michael, the example of Christ's baptism is that of sprinkling...
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Mark 1:10 refutes this assertion
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Before any man could become a priest, three things were required: first, he must be 30 years old (Num. 4:3,47). (This is why Christ's age at His baptism is given as 30 years in Luke 3:23.); second, he must be called of God as was Aaron, the first high priest (Ex. 28:1). (Christ was thus called, Heb. 5:4-10); and thirdly, he must be sprinkled with water (Num. 8:6-7) by one already a priest (John was a priest, inheriting the office from his father, Ex. 29:9; Num. 25:13; Lk. 1:5, 13). Christ knew His call, waited until He was 30 years old and then came to John "to fulfill all righteousness," that is, to meet the last demand of the Old Testament Law for a priest before He began His public ministry.
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Only those who were from the line of Levi, were able to become priests, Remember that Christ was not from the line of Aaron. His priesthood was in the order of Melchizedek a priesthood that shall be forever. It is true that Christ was 30, and that he did receive a baptism from John. That being said, if this was to correlate with what was stated in the quote then his baptism too must have been just a ritual cleansing as it was for the Jewish priesthood. If we look at baptism as just that ritual then perhaps this holds true, but if we believe that baptism has some kind of
sacramental ability (i.e. the instillation of grace) the "ritual" cleansing would be inappropriate. We do know that after Jesus was baptized (Mark 1:10
"and when he came up out of the water, immediately he saw the heavens opening and the spirit descending on Him like a dove.") John makes reference that he did not know who Jesus was in John 1:31. He may have perhaps had contact with him prior to Jesus' baptism but he didn't know who Jesus was until the spirit lit on Him. The obvious sign was for Israel's sake not not Jesus' He was well aware of who He was, remember, Jesus and the Holy Spirit are one with God in the Trinity, there was nothing hid from Jesus.
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Jesus cited to them John's baptism, which He had received, and asked, "Was it from heaven or of men?" In Jesus' mind there is obviously a definite connection between His priestly "authority" and His "baptism by John." He indicates that if John's baptism was from heaven, and He surely believed it was, then He had been truly ordained a priest and possessed authority to cleanse the temple.
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Jesus new from where His authority came, His discussion with the authorities in the temple where not for His sake the question was for the Priests who knew that John was a Prophet. If they denied Christ's baptism given by John coming from God it would have created hate and discontent with the Jewish people. There was no question that Jesus knew the significance of His baptism, it was a sign for Israel that the Messiah had come this was what fulfilled all righteousness.
Blessings