furthermore I would have to ask, Doesnt the KJV state that language changes hence there must be changes in the KJV version? also, which KJV version to my reckoning there are more than one revisions of the KJV.


bear in mind, these are questions ive had for a while and so far no one has been able to provide a non heresay? or non conjecture? answer?? (which ever one is he said she said)