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Old 04-10-2008, 11:15 AM
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R. Scott Clark R. Scott Clark is offline.
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This is a good response.

Are we to think that every member of the congregation had their own private copies of the (Hebrew and Aramaic) Scriptures? Where did they get them? How likely is that sort of literacy in the 1st century?

Virtually no one had copies of the Scriptures apart from the scrolls in the Synagogue. Wouldn't this be a reference to people assembling to query a rabbi or someone who had direct access to the text of Scripture?

rsc

Quote:
Originally Posted by Gryphonette View Post
Quote:
Originally Posted by R. Scott Clark View Post
Where exactly does Paul speak explicitly or implicitly about the private reading of Scripture by private persons? When did 1st century Christians get personal copies of Holy Scripture?
Acts 17:11 "Now these [the Jews in Berea] were more noble-minded than those in Thessalonica, for they received the word with great eagerness, examining the Scriptures daily to see whether these things were so."

Granted, this was recorded by Luke, not Paul, but still...