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Originally Posted by Thomas2007 How does any modern translation have a heritage going back to Tyndale? All of them depart from the Reformation text. The NIV is based upon the critical text, the ESV is based upon the critical text - they are both orphaned siblings.
How do you see the ESV having a lineage back to Tyndale? |
Two points:
1. The ESV is a revision of the RSV, which was a revision of the ASV, which was a revision of the KJV ........
2. The biggest changes in the text of a particular translation are not textual but translation methodology (ie, dynamic equalivent vs. literal). Also, the changes in the text of Received text vs. Critical text are about 6% (if you add in the OT, it becomes a much lower variation). Also, Tyndale's bible was not based on the same precise text as the KJV anyway (Tyndale was before Erasmus). My point is that the Critical vs Received text debate becomes a minor issue in the historical legacy debate. If you look at the actual text of the ESV, one can see a legacy back to older translations.