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Originally Posted by onewayout  Okay. Greg gave me the link to the article that John was speaking to the Jews.. 1st John has no salutation, greeting or farewell addressed to any particular group or person. Therefore, isn't it a general Epistle to the "Church"? I can't find any indication in First John that he's adressing Jews only. The Bible is silent.. so that would be left to "personal interpretation." |
Certainly this is an authoritative epistle to the Church as a whole, but who was John's immediate hearers? Who was his specific audience
at that time? (Context)
"James and Cephas (Peter) and John, who were reputed to be pillars, gave to me (Paul) and Barnabas the right hand of fellowship, so that we might go to the Gentiles and they to the circumcised (Jews)." -Galatians 2:9
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Originally Posted by onewayout But God had not yet turned to the Gentiles. As far as they were concerned, the Gentiles were no where in God's mind or plans |
Exactly! That is precisely why John wrote what he did! Even after Christ's ascension, the issue of the Gentiles' inclusion in the promises of God was still being debated by the Jewish believers at the time.