Okay. Greg gave me the link to the article that John was speaking to the Jews.. 1st John has no salutation, greeting or farewell addressed to any particular group or person. Therefore, isn't it a general Epistle to the "Church"? I can't find any indication in First John that he's adressing Jews only. The Bible is silent.. so that would be left to "personal interpretation."
Iconoclast, states that Caiaphas spoke of the jewish nation. Showing the difference between Jews and the rest of the world. But God had not yet turned to the Gentiles. As far as they were concerned, the Gentiles were no where in God's mind or plans.................. Oh I see, he's (Iconoclast)showing how John writes it almost the same way as he does in 1st John.
I'm not trying to be argumenative. I believe that God doesn't need anything from you and I. I do believe that we are DEAD in our sin. And whosoever will, will not unless God the Spirit draws and enlightens them. And I'm certainly not Armenian. There's no God "spark" in any of us. I"m trying to approach The "L" with an open mind. Like I try to do God's word.

__________________
Clayton
Father of seven and grandfather
of three.
Baptist
Louisiana, USA