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Originally Posted by ModernPuritan?  Ive spent a lot of time studying, and will continue to do so,, (mostly in other matters) So would I be thinking in the right direction with number one?
my statement was- no one, at anytime, was ever saved by the keeping of the law...
~Israel from Sianai up to Christ, was not saved on the basis of their ability to keep the Law, as you mentioned it cant be kept perfectly which would be required to "save". (also a reference somewhere, by no works in man justified?)
~since it isnt by works, it must then be by faith. Meaning that works are a result, of Saving faith. By faith, Noah, Abraham, etc... (Hebrews 11)
so since salvation is/was never based on works, but on faith and faith alone :P then what are we to understand by the reference to paul being a pharisee and "Blameless" before the Law. so what was the nature of that "blameless" |
I believe you are on the rght track. It is a God given faith- IN CHRIST. Not just faith in faith. The just shall live by faith in Him.
When Paul speaks of being "blameless" he is saying that his outward appearance ,and out ward obedience as a Pharisee would have appeard to other men to be blameless. But we understand from his own writings that he came to know how wicked and self righteous he was , even calling himself the chief of sinners. That is why In Phil.3:4-9 he speaks of counting his past "pharisical righteousness" as dung that he might win Christ!
Look how he strives to attain, and says we should also Phil.3:10-17
You are correct in that anyone who is saved, is saved by what Jesus has done by is mercy
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5Not by works of righteousness which we have done, but according to his mercy he saved us, by the washing of regeneration, and renewing of the Holy Ghost;
6Which he shed on us abundantly through Jesus Christ our Saviour;
7That being justified by his grace, we should be made heirs according to the hope of eternal life.
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