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tcalbrecht · #3 (**permalink**) 03-31-2008, 02:13 PM

In my interaction with dispensationalists over the years, there is one equation that defies a straight answer our friends, and that is simply this, "Explain what Paul means by the phrase ‘all Israel’ in Romans 11:26 from the Bible alone beginning with Romans 9:6." Romans 11 is a fundamental passage for dispensationalism, yet more often than not the interpretation of the passage is based on pure speculation about key themes like, the root, "fullness of the gentiles", ingrafting, Israel, etc, not to mention a improper understanding of the covenant and the people of God.

The future which dispensationalists see for Israel is based entirely on a faulty hyper-literalist reading of the OT. It fails to account for the promises and blessing made to Abraham being entirely fulfilled in Jesus Christ, and accruing to Christians by virtue of our standing as children of Abraham.

Then there are the schizophrenic notions resulting from the idea that God’s have tow covenant people; Israel and the Church. E.g., are "church age" Jews kinda second class citizens to their tribulation/millennial kingdom brethren? Or do they receive both physical and spiritual blessings?

Don't expect to ever get a good answer.