This thread may belong in "Revelation and Eschatology", I'm not sure. I recently read Kim Riddlebarger's "Case For Amillennialism" and have also read Meredith Kline's discussion of Daniel 9:24-27. Both argue that the "He" in the first half of verse 27 is a reference back to the "Anointed One" of verse 26. However, I'm not sure either really discuss the "he" in the second half of the verse - who "will set up an abomination that causes desolation..." Is this commonly understood to be the Christ also, or is it now referring back to the "prince" or "ruler" of verse 26?

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Mike Shingler
Pastor: Steep Hollow Baptist Church (SBC)
Bryan, TX