Originally Posted by mark

while not the sole basis upon which we determine this doctrine (really, it is used as an ancillary to the doctrine of the covenant and the unity between the abrahamic and new, nevertheless); of course we would assert the unbelieving spouse has the right to be baptized. Why else were there household baptisms in the book of Acts?

1st century christians rightly understood following the ways of the Lord in a covenantal fashion. Hence Aikin's ENTIRE family was destroyed for this one man's sin. This is only one of many, many examples. How about Rahab's family? They were saved because of her belief and subsequent obedience.

Covenant headship is what we are talking about.

Even so, Paul says the unbelieving spouse is sanctified by her believing spouse. This article seems to deploy its whole argument on the idea that the unbelieving spouse is not sanctified, only his/her chidlren are.

But that's not what the text says....

14For the unbelieving husband is made holy because of his wife, and the unbelieving wife is made holy because of her husband. Otherwise your children would be unclean, but as it is, they are holy.(ESV)