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Originally Posted by Sydnorphyn  Is it possible that Paul is not addressing men and women generically but husband and wife specifically?? (do a quick read of the Greek text and see the shift in the language. Also, a comparison with the LXX of Genesis is helpful as well). |
I specifically mentioned that view in my post. It seems to me that that's the only way to avoid the all spheres of life view, but I wanted to hear why people think it is talking about ecclesiatical authority and not say governing authority.