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Originally Posted by biblicalthought Rich, of course he is. He's a WTS alum; all WTS grads know about the 9th. Look, the guy's book was financially underwritten by the counter-reforming Jesuits, it was dedicated to an enemy of the gospel - a Jesuit priest, and he was educated in the tradition of Ignatius of Loyola, the principal founder and first Superior General of the Society of Jesus - the Jesuits. How much more anti-Reformation can one get than the movement Ignatius promoted called the "Counter Reformation?"
The statement was "The Jesuits finally have someone on the faculty of Westminster Seminary." It didn't mean that everyone who gets PhD'd by Loyola is a Jesuit. You need to consider all of the other puzzle pieces. Makes sense?  |
So if I was educated by Morey, and I dedicated my book to him, and got a job at WTS would you say that "The credo baptists finally have someone on the faculty of WTS." ? Seems ridiculous, huh?
What if I get trained at a secular university, and then later get a job at WTS, would you say, "The secularists finally have someone on the faculty of WTS." ?
Or, more perplexing, what if I learned math from a Jesuit scholar? Would that invalidate 1+1 = 2 for me? If not, then isn't it a bit silly to think that just because someone might agree with a Jesuit in *one* area, that makes them wrong, or in step with the Jesuits? If the Jesuits are right about Nat Law, then it doesn't matter much if they deny the Gosepl of justification by faith alone, now does it. Just like their scientific or mathematical conclusions don't becoem invalidated because they deny said orthodoxy.
