I personally agree with option 2.

The grace purchased by Christ's atoning work was of a different nature than that of God's common grace. In order to forgive the sins of His people it was necessary for Christ to shed His own blood, but His atonement is not necessary for God to show His common grace to reprobates. His common grace is not a pledge to redeem those to whom it is shown, but simply to express His own goodness towards His creatures. I hope this makes sense.

In response to option 3, any grace received by reprobates is real grace, though of a different sort. Although it is true that the ultimate purpose for which God shows this grace to the non-elect is to judge them and to make known his mercy to vessels fitted for glory, still these acts of kindness still maintain their gracious quality. In other words, God is not deceiving people by displaying kindness towards them, but in fact is truly showing mercy towards them.

There is a passage of Scripture I would like you guys to comment on. It is Romans 2:4 - "Or do you presume on the riches of his kindness and forbearance and patience, not knowing that God's kindness is meant to lead you to repentance?" I been studying the subject of the dual will of God, that is, His will of decree versus His will of command. Though it is said in Romans 9:22 and 23 that God's intention in being patient towards the reprobate is to bring judgement upon them, it also says in the above quoted passage that Gods general kindness is "meant to lead you to repentance?" How would you reconcile these two passages?

__________________
David Wakefield
Covenant of Grace Presbyterian Church (ARP)
Winston-Salem, NC

"If you could have chosen your own circumstances and condition in life, you could not have made so wise a choice as God has made for you."
- Charles Haddon Spurgeon