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Old 10-28-2004, 05:46 PM
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Quote:
Originally posted by wsw201
Unfortunately, Ferguson's comments come from a book that is no longer in print titled "Theonomy: A Reformed Critique". It is a book written with the contributions of a number of Profs at WTS PA back in 1990. A friend of mine had a old copy that I read. If you find it let me know. I want my own copy!
I've heard a lot about that book. I'll let you know if I ever see a copy available online or elsewhere.

Quote:
Originally posted by wsw201
I would agree that the Moral Law is an expression of God's very character, but does that apply to the judicial laws? Even Bahnsen argues that it is the principles of the law that matter not the specific laws that would apply to a past time and place.
Well, the reason I'm inclined to answer "yes" to your first question is that, as I discussed above, it seems that the place of the judicial laws was to interpret the moral laws of the Decalogue, similar to our judicial and legislative branches above. And I've never disagreed with your second sentence, as the time- and place-specific aspects of the case laws are what Theonomists take to be "expired." But it is the specific principles illustrated by each of those laws are what I'm inclined to say are "theological" in nature, since there is no reason to think they do not reflect the character of God - such as the fencing and the oxen in the field examples.

Quote:
Originally posted by wsw201
But how would you answer my comment regarding the covenanted nature of Israel versus the non-covenanted nature of nations today. Plus is a nation required to enforce the 1st table of the law as per the judicial laws of Israel?
Something may eventually be pointed out to me that would cause me to change my perspective, but at the moment I would be inclined to say that the observation in your first question--that national Israel was and is the only covenantal nation--is precisely why the specific, detailed applications of the case laws in their particular society expired with the nation, while the "general equity" of the principles illustrated by those case laws remain applicable and binding for every nation. And as to your second question, if you're referring to the first four commandments, at this point I'd be inclined to say yes.

I'm enjoying discussing this with you and everyone else.
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Christopher Blum
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