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I haven't yet read his comments but I will. And is not answering the question of how God intends His law--which is an expression of Himself--to be applied a question of understanding who He is? I may simply have terms mixed up here, but I would assert at the very least that it is a doctrinal question in addition to an ethical question.
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Chris,
Unfortunately, Ferguson's comments come from a book that is no longer in print titled "Theonomy: A Reformed Critique". It is a book written with the contributions of a number of Profs at WTS PA back in 1990. A friend of mine had a old copy that I read. If you find it let me know. I want my own copy!
I would agree that the Moral Law is an expression of God's very character, but does that apply to the judicial laws? Even Bahnsen argues that it is the principles of the law that matter not the specific laws that would apply to a past time and place.
But how would you answer my comment regarding the covenanted nature of Israel versus the non-covenanted nature of nations today. Plus is a nation required to enforce the 1st table of the law as per the judicial laws of Israel?