Maybe I didn't make myself clear. Outside of 16:13, I don't think the masculine pronouns are referring back to a neuter noun. They are referring to a masculine noun, παράκλητος, the word used by Jesus to speak of the Holy Spirit. So Jesus naturally uses the masculine pronoun to refer to a masculine noun. The problem with this is that is 16:13 Jesus does seem to use a masculine to refer to a neuter noun, the closest referent. That is unless he is referring to παράκλητος in verse 7.

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Jeremy Ellis
Member of the Village Church of Bartlett
Bartlett, IL