I'll start off with this: I believe in the person and deity of the Holy Spirit. With that said, I am a little bit confused with the following passages: John 15:26; 16:8. 13. Many times good commentators seem to think that John thought of the Holy Spirit as a person because he used a masculine pronoun to refer to him. I think that the masculine ἐκεῖνος certainly refers back to παράκλητος in 15:26 and 16:8 and is not trying to signify anything based on grammar. With that said, could I be wrong because in 16:13 ἐκεῖνος is used again, this time not referring to παράκλητος but to a neuter πνεῦμα?

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Jeremy Ellis
Member of the Village Church of Bartlett
Bartlett, IL