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Originally Posted by Sydnorphyn  Is Christ in the Psalms before he is in the NT? Is the statement true exegetically? Should we say "Christ is in the Psalms after Christ is incarnated?" That is, it is only after the incarnation and resurrection that one can "see" Christ in the Psalms. Thoughts? |
John, can we broaden the picture a bit? To expand on your words, "is it only after the incarnation and resurrection that one can "see" Christ in the Old Testament?" I believe if we can see Christ
before the Psalms it will have great effect on the Messianic references in the psalter. For example:
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| John 8:52-58 52 The Jews said to Him, "Now we know that You have a demon. Abraham died, and the prophets also; and You say, 'If anyone keeps My word, he will never taste of death.' 53 "Surely You are not greater than our father Abraham, who died? The prophets died too; whom do You make Yourself out to be?" 54 Jesus answered, "If I glorify Myself, My glory is nothing; it is My Father who glorifies Me, of whom you say, 'He is our God'; 55 and you have not come to know Him, but I know Him; and if I say that I do not know Him, I will be a liar like you, but I do know Him and keep His word. 56 "Your father Abraham rejoiced to see My day, and he saw it and was glad." 57 So the Jews said to Him, "You are not yet fifty years old, and have You seen Abraham?" 58 Jesus said to them, "Truly, truly, I say to you, before Abraham was born, I am."
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What is Jesus saying in John 8:56? Abraham's rejoicing is in the past tense. Is this because Abraham witnessed Jesus incarnation while in glory, or could it be the sureness of the promise that Abraham believed? In Genesis 16, 17 & 18 Abraham has encounters with God. In chapter 18 it is most certainly either a christophony or a theophony. Four times we read in Genesis 18, "So the LORD said." I think we can rightly conclude that Abraham had seen the pre-incarnate Christ, and knew him. If Abraham had met the LORD, does it not make it easier to see Christ in the Psalms?