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Old 02-28-2008, 05:12 PM
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Daniel is correct. Another way to put it (maybe more simply) is this: when two nouns are connected by a verb of being (like 'am,' 'is,' 'are,' 'was,' etc.), the usual way to express which noun is the subject in Greek is not by word order, but by expressing the article. "The Word" is therefore the subject of that clause, not "God." So the lack of the definite article expresses the fact that "God" is the predicate noun, not the subject noun. But this is a grammatical lack of article, not a "meaning" lack of article. Thus, there is more than one reason why a noun could be anarthrous. In this case, it is simply that "God" is the predicate nominative and not the subject. A similar example (puzzlingly translated wrongly by every major English version I know) is John 20:31, where the English versions have "that Jesus is the Christ." It should rather be "that the Christ, the Son of God, is Jesus." See Carson's commentary on this passage for argumentation. The issue in John 20:31 is not that you can say many things about Jesus including the fact that He is the Messiah. The issue is that of all the people whom one could claim to be the Messiah, John (and God, inspiring him) say that it is Jesus.
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