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Old 02-28-2008, 03:53 PM
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Word order in a predicate statement with two nouns may determine the specificity of a noun rather than the presence or absence of an article. (1) Definite predicate nouns that follow the copulative verb tend to have the article expressed. (2) Definite predicate nouns that precede the copulative verb tend to omit the article, even though they may be specific in meaning.

John 1:1 "theos ēn ho logos" ([the] word was God) where God ("theos") is anarthrous (without an article) so as to be translated "a god," yet since it proceeds the copulative "ēn" (3rd singular person, imperfect active indicative of eimi [to be]), it can be translated "God." Thus the translation of this passage must be determined by context.

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Also, is there any significance to the movement of ὀ λόγος to the end of the clause in C when it was at the beginning in B?
It is probably an inclusio: one thought.
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