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Old 02-22-2008, 09:31 PM
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Okay.

The following is a quote from a book called The Death Christ Died by Robert P. Lightner, Th.D Professor of Systematic Theology, Dallas Theological Seminary. Lightner writes from the "unlimited redemptionist" perspective.

This is what he wrote:

Quote:
These selected passages serve to illustrate the fact that the Bible does speak of the atonement in relation to specific individuals and groups. According to these and and other passages, Christ came to redeem His own, to provide a ransom for many, to die for the sheep, and to give Himself for the Church. And the unlimited redemptionist has absolutely no problem reconciling all such references with his view. It should be understood, however, that none of the passages which speak of Christ's death for specific groups or individuals can be used to exclude others. This is true since they only tell us of a certain group for whom Christ did die, and they do not tell us that He did not die for others. In other words, nowhere in Scripture does it ever say Christ did not die for all men.
So, in other words, they don't do anything with it! They say it means what it says, but then go on to say that it does not exclude or contradict other places which use the term "all."

Sounds like antics with semantics to me!
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"Whatever is laudable in our works proceeds from the grace of God."
-- John Calvin, Institutes III:xv.3.

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