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Originally Posted by DMcFadden  Yes, when I was a four pointer, I could rationalize the "many" in Hebrews 9 the same way I now do the "all" in certain other passages. We "all" acknowledge that "all" does not "always" mean "all." Why would "many" pose any greater problem? |
I understand, but the 'many' in vs. 28 is clearly in contrast to the implied 'all' men die and go to judgment in vs. 27.
If the passage said, "And as it is appointed unto
many men once to die, but after this the judgment: So Christ was once offered to bear the sins of many; and unto them that look for him shall he appear the second time without sin unto salvation." then I would have no problem seeing both 'manys' refering to all men. But why would the author of Hebrews use the word 'many' in verse 28 and not in verse 27?
I did read in JFB that (in their view) the 'many' in verse 28 is in contrast to 'few' not 'all'. But it did not explain their exegesis. The word 'few' is not present or implied anywhere in the context.
I have never been a UA person and I am desiring to understand their point of view. I guess it is a matter or 'rationalization'.