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Originally Posted by Seb  Quote:
Originally Posted by JBaldwin Quote:
Originally Posted by jaybird0827
Suppose a credo becomes convinced of paedo and moves his family to a church that practices paedo. His children are grammar-school age and not ready to profess faith. They were not baptized as infants because the parents were credo at the time.
The Session encourages the father to consider having baptism administered to the children and he agrees. Is that a 1 or 2 or would you consider that another circumstance? | I think since the father is making the decision it would fall into 1 or 2, as I see 3 as being baptism as a confession of faith. | I just when through almost exactly this scenario. I've move from credo to paedo in the past year and recently had my four-year-old baptized because of my convictions.
I think at this age and older it becomes a slightly different circumstance than those listed above.
Not only must the parent(s) have saving faith but the child must have not rejected Christ. It's not exactly credo for the child, but they can't be "anti-credo" for lack of a better word.
Don't we baptize our children because we presume they will come to saving faith in our Lord? That they are set apart from the world? If a grammar-aged child is adamant about not being part of it I don't see that you could proceed with the baptism. imho. |
Though it might seem inconsistent on my part, I think I could agree with yout on this issue. In this similar circumstance, my husband and I would most likely not ask our child to be baptised is she was rejecting the gospel. Both my children were baptised as infants, though, because I came to this position before I had children.