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Originally Posted by LadyFlynt  I DO have a question though and would love to hear an answer:
My understanding is that the KJV/Geneva came from the Coptic/Byzantine texts, whereas the ESV/NASB/etc comes from the Alexandrian/Egyptian texts. I understand that these two groups are different, one more wordy, and after their own traditions. The KJVOers argument is against the Alexandrian texts due to corruption within the Alexandrian church (and we know that there were heresies spread throughout varies parts of the church, such as gnosticism, judaizing, etc and those mentioned in the NT). Could someone speak to this issue? What were the issues in the Alexandrian church and did/how did they affect the texts? |
I would suggest you read
this.
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Originally Posted by Stephen Remember that the KJV was translated in opposition to the Reformation. |
I think you are wrong to say this. It was a product of the Reformation and one of the rules of translation was that "These translations to be used, when they agree better with the text than the Bishops’ Bible. TYNDAL’S, COVERDALE’S, MATTHEWS’ S, WHITCHURCH’S, GENEVA."