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Originally Posted by Amazing Grace  Quote:
Originally Posted by crhoades One thing to mention...The moral law existed prior to Sinai and if we view the moral law as a representation of God's righteous character it will have existed even prior to creation and the Covenant of Works. I have seen a couple of times people have posted about living according to Sinai. Just want to reiterate that the moral law existed prior to and in fact if we look at Sinai it was actually a part of the Covenant of Grace. In the NT there are still imperatives. We want to properly see them after the indicative. Because we are now sons and daughters...do this. But if we look closely at the decalogue, we also see that in the Preamble God professes to be Covenant LORD and had delivered them out of Egypt out of the house of bondage.
We keep the law (our Father's commands/wishes) out of love and gratitude. We want to please Him - not obedience for fear or obedience's sake.
I'm pretty sure this is the classic reformed/confessional understanding of the law in the life of the believer. Open to correction. |
Chris, when speaking of the 3rd use of Law, we are specifically talking of the 10 words given clearly at Sinai. Is there another one that I am amissing prior to Sinai? It is obvious the mosiac code was cut at sinai, the 10 words. Or else why would God speak of " delivering them out of egypt" to Abraham? |
Sure the 10 words were given at Sinai but they are a summary of the moral law not the totality of or a new law itself. The moral law existed prior to Sinai. It was wrong to murder, committ adultery, bear false witness etc. during Abraham's time and before. Sabbath is a creation ordinance and is perpetual as well. So the 3rd use of the law has always been around. OT believers were justified by faith just as NT believers. After Abraham was justified he entered into sanctification (as did Moses etc.) and the law wasn't contrary to their Christian walk.