Quote:
Originally Posted by Jerusalem Blade  Modern scholarship insists that all other witnesses have taken words from the Lord’s Prayer in Matthew and added them here to make both prayers agree in phrasing. But if it were the policy that both Lord’s prayers should be identical, how can we explain why no Greek witness added Matthew 6:13 (“for thine is the kingdom and the power and the glory, amen”) to the end of Luke 11:4 to make the job complete? |
Have any modern text critics attempted to answer this question?