Originally Posted by DMcFadden

Interesting thread. Part of the argument by textual critics is that a first century document would not have included a doxology of this kind. They claim it reflects a later ecclesiastical context. But, how do they explain the Didache having it???

As a CT user, I get that representatives of the Alexandrian (א B) and the Western (D and most of the Old Latin) texts do not have the doxology. Still, it can be found in K L W Δ Θ Π f*13 al it in the standard KJV-style triple strophic form. It is a little hard to understand the presence in the Didache at such an early date if it is not authentic. (???)